If a woman can claim lack of consent for having sex while drunk, despite physically engaging the activity with her motor functions, why can't a drunk that commits violence/vandalism claim being too incapacitated to be judged on his/her actions?
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What happens if a drunk man rapes a sober woman? I guess we can't label that decision of his rape anymore. On the contrary, she raped him!
The feminists would be fuming, if only they had the intellectual capacity to see the self-destructive consequences of their own ideology.2