Why is anti derivative area under the curve?


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Most Helpful Guy

  • I'm pretty sure it has to do with the fact that the integral is the SUM of (f (x1)-f (x0) / (x1-x0)) over a given range, where the difference between x1-x0 is lim -> 0; and as a result, the values that you are adding together on each part of the sum in the integral (differential is defined as lim (x1-x0) -> 0 on f (x1)-f (x0) / (x1-x0)) are actually just the values of the derivative method... or actually I'm probably just full of shit because the trapezoid method works only on primitive functions. I dunno mate, LOL But I'm sure i'm onto something. I should just read more about the Riemann-integral to get it.

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What Girls Said 2

  • You mean the indefinite Integral. I wish they wouldn't use the term anti-derivative. Well, I will give you a link. But it is defined as the area under a curve. It would take way too long to explain it here but it is explained well here: www.askamathematician.com/.../

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    • well its the same thing isnt?

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    • I took calculus 1 and that's it

    • :) Im sure if you look you can find something. There are more and more engineering roles out there. And thank you for the compliment.
      ********************Engineers do it... with precision.**************************

  • i dont think it is.

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What Guys Said 1

  • huh... any further x-planation bro?

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