I am intrigued by the media coverage of the story about a female high school teacher, aged 36, who has a kid with a teen. She is allegedly to have been having sex with the teen, or at least grooming the teen for sex since he was 14. If a male had committed the alleged offense, he would have been called a pedophile. Is the press being cautiously responsible, or administering different standards to female child abusers?
https://www.yahoo.com/news/high-school-teacher-baby-pupil-135328450.html
http://www.mirror.co.uk/news/world-news/dad-claims-sons-english-teacher-10979684
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