If my boyfriend has had sex with another man before, is it safe to think that he still has desires to be with men?
I asked a similar question here a little while ago pertaining to my boyfriend's "sexual preference" even though he still to this day is very avid about being perceived as a straight man. Anyways, I've come to the conclusion, after finding out that my boyfriend had receptive anal sex with another man, that he is bisexual but he won't admit it. What I'm having trouble with now is trying to figure out if it's safe or not to assume that my boyfriend still has desires & fantasies about being with men. I've done a few things in my sexual history that I'm not proud of & vowed to never do again & I've accepted that & haven't looked back. I just want to know whether a man who actually engaged in receptive anal sex with another man can be as straight laced as my boyfriend claims to be.
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