If a woman can only orgasm from receiving oral, then is it fair for her man to expect oral in return, even if he's already orgasming from penetration?
I don't think she should have to do something she finds unpleasant, in order to get any orgasms at all, when he's already having orgasms from penetration.
If a woman can only receive orgasm from oral, it's fair for her to receive but not give oral sex, as long as she makes him orgasm somehow (such as by penetration, the most efficient way to make a man orgasm, whereas receiving oral is the most effective way to make a woman orgasm).
This question is inspired by a response to one of my other polls: Do you ever engage in sexual activities, that you find unpleasant, just to please your sexual partner?
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