How come in the U. S, Britain, France, and Spain are never included in talks of Reparations for Slavery?

Waffles731
The United States had slavery for less than 100 years, from 1783 after the revolution ended and we won our Independence to 1865 with the signing of the 13th Amendment. The Transatlantic slave trade was started by England, France, Spain, The Netherlands and Portugal.
In what is now U. S Soil the practice of Slavery was started BY Britain, France, and Spain and its length under their rule is much longer.
So how come the talk is of The U. S paying when more slaves were owned by those 3 nations in what is now U. S Soil.
Updates:
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Hell we get blamed for the Entire Indian Wars and Indian Genocide.
A. The Tribe I'm Descended from was COMPLETELY subjugated in the late 16th century and early 17th by the English, as in the people I'm descended from were brutally genocided before the freaking Acts of Union happened and England became The U. K
B. The British only stopped the Indian Wars in 1867, BECAUSE Canada BECAME ITS OWN COUNTRY, THEN Canada TOOK OVER. Mexico fought the Indian Wars into the 1920s
How come in the U. S, Britain, France, and Spain are never included in talks of Reparations for Slavery?
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