Search Results: we are not in an official relationship

So, as the educated among you know, in the USA law is drastically shaped by case law, especially when there is little to no legislation in an area. That is, courts hear cases in gray areas, decide what things mean, and it becomes law/practice. And gay marriage has just been legalized, so I wonder... will gay marriage practices bleed into family law and affect normal marriage?

For instance, say a gay couple has kids. Biology seems to indicate that only one of those two people will be genetically related to the child, no? Unlike a marriage with a man and woman, where usually both peopel are related to the child. Let's say a gay divorce or child support case goes to court, and one of the people argues against paying child support, as he/she is not related to the child. The other says, "Judge, that may apply to straight marriage, but in a homosexual relationship, there's about no cases where both parents are related to the child. You can't decide a gay marriage on straight standards!" And that person wins! Paternity is ruled to not be genetic, and it's a relationship thing, not DNA.

Then, say, a woman in a straight marriage goes to a divorce case. Her husband was cheated on, and is arguing that he doesn't have to pay child support because the kid was just born, and DNA tests confirm. But she says, "That court ruled paternity is not genetic, it's a relationship, etc, blah blah." Maybe she loses, and common sense reigns. But mayeb she finds a judge who likes new arguments and making new caselaw, and she wins. And suddenly it's standard practice that husbands have a duty to support all children their wife births, regardless of who the genetic father is. Legalized cuckoldry, made official.

So what do you think? Will judges be smart enough to keep the two beasts separate, and not alter straight marraige by applying gay marriage standards/practices? Or will the two start overlapping, and the law change?