Why is it that when a man kills a woman, it's called "gender-based violence," but when a man kills a man or a woman kills a man, it's just murder?

[Anonymous]

It seems like whenever a woman is killed by a man, it’s automatically labeled as gender-based violence, regardless of the circumstances. But when a man is killed—whether by another man or a woman—it’s just considered murder, without any discussion of gender. Why is there a difference in how these crimes are framed? People forget that more men are murdered overall than women so if men hate women then they must hate each other even more

[Anonymous]

I would assume it's the context. If the man killed the woman because of some mysoginistic motive or rationale, where the man killed another man or the woman killed a man because of neutral/"normal" motives, that could make the difference.

Consider a man who kills a woman because he thinks she is being a bad woman (she's promiscuous, or rude, or doesn't like men or something). This is gender based because those same things would not motivate him to kill a man, and he killed her specifically because she was a woman who he was upset by. That would set that murder apart as femicide.

Whereas if a man murdered a woman because she cheated on him or because he wanted to rob her or something, that's just plain old murder.

[Anonymous]

because people still think misandry is a myth or in some cases justified

[Anonymous]

Because dividing people by gender is just what feminists do.

[Anonymous]

It is still considered murder any way you put it.

[Asker]

How about answering the question 🤡

[Opinion Owner]

How about not posting about questions that have no consequence. Murder is always called murder, therefore your claim is baseless and has no merit.

[DrPepper12]

Who calls it that? Source?

[Dargil]

Democrats.