Would a man still have to pay on the first date even if it was the woman who made the first move and asked him out?

So I met this female colleague of mine from a higher rank of my work, and we've been friends for 2 months now. She immediately confessed her feelings on me and said that she would like to take me out on a date.

I don't know if this is the right time though as I currently do not have the sufficient amount of funds to be able to pay for her, because all I know is that the man is always the one who plan stuff and who always pays when it comes to dates. So I was a bit shocked when she did this, although I reiterated that as much as I would love to go on a good date with her, I currently do not have the financial capacity to pay for the both of us. She then insisted that she will be the one to pay for me. While I was happy to hear this, at the same time I'm also worried that she might just be shit testing me.

I also heard that it's very common for a woman to offer to pay for us men while secretly testing us to see if we will let them pay, and if we do agree then women will generally resent it, because then we'll be unmanly in her eyes. This is the reason why I ask this question out of skepticism that she might just be using me for a social experiment or something. Besides, I've been a victim of this when I was in high school and it honestly gave me trauma. :(

Would a man still have to pay on the first date even if it was the woman who made the first move and asked him out?
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