If a wife slept with her exes just the day before her wedding and on getting caught after marriage she replies it was in the past and before marriage?

Then, is her excuse justified? Yes it was the day before the wedding and they were not married, but is it the right excuse? Will people say it is not cheating as it was done before marriage, and her body is hers so she can do anything?
If a wife slept with her exes just the day before her wedding and on getting caught after marriage she replies it was in the past and before marriage?
Post Opinion