Am I not legally entitled to a share of the profits from the sale of ex's house if I lived there for a few years and contributed?

Anonymous

So a few months ago, my boyfriend of three years and I broke up.

Shortly after we got together, he bought a house, and a few months later, asked me to move in, and I thought it was a great idea, as it was closer to my current work and he said he would pay the mortgage and I didn't have to pay rent, just towards utilities and groceries etc.

However, some time before we broke up, he found a house he really likes that was very close to his work, and he said he wanted to move, he'd already had offers on the current house, and we had a big fight, because the new place would be further from my work place, whereas the current one is about equal distance to both.

He doubled down and said how much he really liked the new house, it has the yard and garage he really wanted and I called him selfish, we fought and fought and ended up breaking up.

I recently found out that the sale went ahead, he got even more money for it than initially expected, and bought the new house.

I messaged him asking for a few thousand because I'm 1) seriously in need of the money 2) entitled to it because I lived there and contributed to the house, and his reply was "HAHAHAHAHAHA".

I feel that because I contributed to the house and lived there, and helped improve it, I should get a small share.

He also makes very good money and his only debt is his mortgage.

Thoughts?

Am I not legally entitled to a share of the profits from the sale of ex's house if I lived there for a few years and contributed?
13 Opinion