Do you know why MEN were given the right to vote before women?

[KrakenAttackin]

The answer is because men were/are subject to military conscription. As such the thinking was that if men could be sent to war (and probably be maimed or killed), they should have some choice in electing the officials who could send them to war.

[RavVid]

I think it is more complicated than that. In the UK universal male suffrage occurred in 1918 and can certainly be seen in the context of the sacrifices on the western front with women in 1928. But in reality it was all over the shop. Many countries were earlier inc. US for men and later for women. Switzerland was notable in doing so for men in 1848 but not women till 1990. One of the largest gaps.

Whilst this might be construed as misogynist it is not sensible to view society out of context of it's time. As most men and women were married and in family units, you could semi argue it was one vote per family economic unit.

In the 1848 Eurpopean revolutions, the goal was universal franchise for men and women but after order was restored that was quickly swept off the table and replaced with objectives of balancing power between strata's of society. Those that owned property versus those that didn't, who therefore might be somewhat more radical and revolt as they did in 1848. Those who owned property would be more stable.

If male and female franchise were implemented earlier in the 1848+ period there would have been a greater shift of power to the lower socio-econmic strata than with only male universal suffrage because there would be roughly twice the voting block size.

[inhua]

women didn't even want the vote back then. it was feminists who convinced they did but once it was ensured that women didn't have to go to war, they accepted it and since then feminism has began sprouting propaganda nonsense to paint men as evil

[KrakenAttackin]

It's true. There was a poll that showed before amendment only 28% of woman wanted the right to vote and 38% of men wanted to give women the right to vote.

[Denisa12]

Why are you asking other people questions, if you already give THEM the answer lmao?
Just write a book

[KrakenAttackin]

@Denisa12. "LMAO".

[John_Doesnt]

That was not the real reason and that was not the only way to get the right to vote. It was made that way to keep poor people from voting unless they were willing to work for the government in wars. Any rich man could bypass that requirement of conscription by paying a fee and still get the right to vote. America was founded on suppressing the poor and minorities.

[Lliam]

Because women were considered to be chattel back then. They were property.

[KrakenAttackin]

So were men before about 1870.

[Berethor]

It connected to the might makes right trope, and many feminists want rights without duties.

[Jerre]

Go back to the 1790 U. S. Census. Only men voted, women were house maidens, couldn’t do anything (according to the thinking then) other than keep house and raise kids. It wasn’t until 1920 when the 19th Amendment gave woman the right to vote.

[Fuentes]

I don't agree with men first they shoulda just allowed women to vote lol that was some communist shii they pulled back then. Just like they didn't let blacks vote forever and many other races that been here.

[OddBeMe]

Uh I would argue, because from cavemen to Greek and Roman democracies, men were stronger and women were busy with the babies.

[msc545]

Kraken myou are right. Men were the people who got killed in wars, not womem. That is still mostly true.

[AngryCarl2]

You've really answered your own question. But what if men voted not to fight?

[Pete671]

Great point, I love it!!!

[riverrat3]

Men were in control of everything

[KrakenAttackin]

Only the tiniest % of men controlled "everything".

[riverrat3]

Still men controlled everything

[riverrat3]

The 1 percent controlled it then, they control it now