He claimed that if both the houses of Congress were to win the midterms, he'd make sure to pay off the U. S. citizens.
Under federal law (18 U. S. C. § 597 and 52 U. S. C. § 10307(c)), offering an expenditure to induce someone to vote, refrain from voting, or vote for a specific candidate carries penalties including fines and up to five years in prison.
Did he just provide Congress, assuming both sides actually become Democrat, the grounds to impeach him yet again?

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