Does Roman anti‑polygamy law explain the New Testament’s “one wife” wording?

[strateguy632]

Does knowledge that law, in first century b. c.=before christ, in roman empire, that forbade polygamy- help interpreted the new testament using "singular" about wife for example

Ephesians 5: 33 "each one of you also must love his wife as he loves himself, and the wife" in singular. Also Corinth in picture

Only knowing bible, verses might seem a contradiction, but maybe knowing historical background helps comprehend?

Maybe "having his own" means not adultery?

[LazerBean]

In 1st Timothy 3:2 and Titus 1:6-8, The original Greek word used for "one" in "one wife" literally just means "one" or "singular". So we know that at the very least, God commands bishops/pastors and deacons to have a singular wife. We see in those verses, and among other versus throughout the Bible, that leaders are held to a higher standard than everyone else because God only wants the best of his sons leading the rest of His children. Based on that we see that even though polygamy is not universally condemned by God as a sin, people who participate in it are below those who do not and are limiting their potential.