Do you think this is a valid reason for not calling me as much as before?

We’re in a 3 year long distant relationship. He recently travelling all the way from the states to the UK to spend 3 weeks with me for the first time. After leaving he texted me saying he wants to see me again and also called me when he got home to repeat that. Anyway since then which was 2 weeks ago I’ve only gotten 2 calls. He’s been texting but it’s not as frequent (during his evenings) as usual. I flagged to him that we don’t really talk as much as we used to and he said ‘we saw each other for 3 weeks, give us time to miss each other’. He also said that ‘we talked a lot over the phone before meeting because we hadn’t seen each other before.’

How would you interpret what he wrote? Im of course going to back off now but it’ll be good to get a man’s perspective on this

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when this same guy was here he told me about his ex who is now married with a baby but she’s not happy and just simply ‘co-habitating’ with her husband. He says they talk now and again and told me her family liked him (I think that was a dig at me as my family weren’t sure if he would ever come to visit me) but he’s definitely in contact with this chick who live in his country close to him and on Christmas Day he told me that she texted him. Is he friendzoning me?
Do you think this is a valid reason for not calling me as much as before?
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