There's a quote I have recently come across that I love
"whatever is morally right for a man to do is morally right for a woman to do. I recognized no rights but human rights." Angelina Grimké Weld.
This is part of the origin of the statement:
(source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Women%27s_rights_are_human_rights)
But I would like to extrapolate this statement into the following:
Morally right for a man, morally right for a woman, correct?
Therefore:
Morally wrong for a man, morally wrong for a woman? If a man can not do it, should a woman be able to?
How about:
Morally right for a woman, morally right for a man? If it is permissible for a woman to do it, is it therefore permissible for a man?
and of course
Morally wrong for a woman, morally wrong for a man. I think that most people agree on this one. But those middle two, they are a bit sticky aren't they? Think about it, and let me know your thoughts
As always
Anpu
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