If having sex while drunk is rape because a woman doesn't consent then how is it cheating when a drunk TAKEN man has sex with another woman?

If a taken DRUNK man having sex with another woman is cheating but if a drunk single woman having sex with a man is rape, then how can a drunk person cheat and get raped at the same time?

Why can't a drunk taken man be considered raped if being drunk=no consent?

According to feministic logic whether you give consent to sex or not depends on if you're a taken man or a woman?
Some girls (on my other question about the same topic) said that it is still CHEATING and it is still RAPE. So it turns out that a drunk taken man CHEATED and got RAPED at the same time.
This is ridiculous. If someone rapes you that is never cheating. If you cheated that is never rape. Cheating and rape oppose each other.
But let's not forget that feminists said it is cheating in the case ogf the drunk TAKEN man because I said a drunk TAKEN MAN but if I said a drunk TAKEN WOMAN, now they wouldn't say it is still cheating. They would say it is rape.
I need a lifetime to call feminists on their BS. Their BS is never ending.
If having sex while drunk is rape because a woman doesn't consent then how is it cheating when a drunk TAKEN man has sex with another woman?
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