Why Biblical Slavery is not Objectively Wrong nor Objectively Immoral.

[AbleLearner]

IN the Bible, "Slavery" is allowed. However, Biblical Slavery was the punishment of NON-capital crimes, such as theft, assault, property damage, or refusal to pay your debts and similar crimes. This is what Europeans used to call "Indentured Servitude"

The type of Slavery practiced by the U.S. and Western Europe was not Objectively Moral. That is what the Bible calls "Man stealing" and the biblical punishment for Man Stealing is agonizing physical death of all persons involved in the crime.

the biblical punishment for theft is the physical removal of your right hand AND Slavery to the person you stole from, until you pay for the entire price of the materials stolen, but NOT perpetually.

The biblical punishment for property damage or failing to pay a debt was SLAVERY to the person owed reparations until the debt was paid by forcible manual labor.

The biblical Punishment for assault was a 50 golden shekels fine, and if you could not pay it you became the Slave of the victim of the crime until you did pay the fine. And the fine is actually so high that you are unlikely to ever pay it off in a mortal lifetime.

The Biblical Punishment for killing a Slave is a 50 golden shekels fine to the Slave's owner, and if you cannot pay the fine you become the original owner's new slave until you work off the fine by physical forcible manual labor. Since a slave is a convicted criminal, they do not have human rights, as commission of a crime forfeits your human rights for the duration of the penalty, which the Constitution still says so today, so killing a slave is NOT a capital crime, but it is a crime nonetheless, and punishable by an insanely high fine resulting in slavery of the offender.

The 14th Amendment of the Constitution states that no person shall be deprived of Life, Liberty or Property EXCEPT as punishment for a crime. And the amendment forbids "involuntary servitude" EXCEPT "as punishment for a crime".

Therefore the 14th amendment actually does not ban slavery. When you commit a crime, the 14th amendment actually still allows slavery.

"Rent" is an illegal form of Slavery, because the Declaration of Independence and the 14th Amendment give you a RIGHT to own property and own your own home. IN the colonial period and the imperial period of the United States, people built one another's houses free of charge, and the government gave away entire square miles of land to any lawfully married couple who showed up to claim the land, because you were assumed to have a right to property and have a right to own your own home. This doesn't mean everyone can be a "freeloader" and get free stuff, but a person who has a job and works for a living should be able to afford to have their own property and own home. Rent is a form of defacto slavery, and slavery "EXCEPT" AS PUNISHMENT FOR A CRIME is a crime.

When you commit a crime, you forfeit your human rights for the duration of the penalty of the crime. Criminals are not supposed to be getting free medical care, and they are not supposed to be playing football in the yard, and they are not supposed to be watching free cable television. They are supposed to be forcibly working off their debts to civilization, especially the original victim of their crime or crimes. You are supposed to WORK OFF the maximum theoretical value of the crime you committed by forcible manual labor, and "good behavior" does not earn a moral pardon. All humans are expected to exhibit good behavior, therefore good behavior should not lessen the penalty of a crime.

The biblical penalty for Spousal Abuse is a 50 golden shekels fine being paid to the other party, which ultimately results in half of your entire life's income being paid to the other party until the day you die, which is defacto Slavery. Presently, people commit spousal abuse and never even end up getting punished in the U.S. and spousal abuse is the number one thing police officers actually respond to on a day to day basis.