On another post someone said that in divorce things should be split 50/50 of any and all assets gained throughout the marriage regardless on if one partner contributed the bulk of those assets or not.
As example one spouse stayed at home & the other worked, stay at home would be entitled to 50% of assests (property, furniture, etc.) bought in the marriage even if didn't pay a dime.
And that got me thinking.
I own a property outright (bought easily as I came from Europe & CAD is far less), I have a good job, I am currently running one e commerce business & thinking of another next year. And looking into some property investment deals with a long time friend of mine.
Yeah I'm really a woman brought up in a upper middle class, highly business focused family. So business, investment, etc. is generational, going back to great-grandpa.
Anyway
I'd be mighty pissed off if someone thought that simply by marriage they'd be entitled to anything that MY hard work contributed to the household merely because we're married.
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